Data services architecture

Figure 7-1 is a pictorial summary of the data services architecture. The view is biased to highlight the
functional elements. It includes technical aspects but skips the internal details in many places. As you
look deeper into the nuts and bolts in this chapter, many of these details will emerge.
As Figure 7-1 depicts, data services includes the following:
Gateway to intercept server-bound calls
Parser to make sense of AMF messages
Serializer and deserializer to transform objects between ActionScript 3.0 (AS3) and Java
Manager to coordinate with and delegate responsibility to server-side objects
Messaging service provider to send and receive messages
By data services, I mean a class of products that enable remoting and messaging over AMF and protocols
like Real Time Messaging Protocol (RTMP). RTMP is a proprietary protocol developed by Adobe
Systems for streaming audio, video, and data over the Internet. More information on RTMP can be
found on Wikipedia at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_Time_Messaging_Protocol and at
http://osflash.org/documentation/rtmp.

Remoting and RPC

If this is the first time you are deploying BlazeDS, it’s recommended you deploy blazeds-samples.war
and verify that the sample applications run without a problem.
The other piece of the puzzle is the Java application server. I will assume that you have downloaded
and installed one for your use. In this example, we download the latest stable release of JBoss AS from
the community download page accessible at http://www.jboss.org/projects/download/. At the
time of writing, version 4.2.2.GA is the latest stable release. This may differ depending on when you
download it. The JBoss AS download is an archive file that is ready to use as soon as it’s expanded in
the file system. (It may at most require a few environment variable settings.) On the PC, we just unzip
it within a directory on the main partition.

INTEGRATING VIA DATA AND MEDIA SERVICES

The portion of services-config.xml at /flex/WEB-INF from our BlazeDS installation, where three of
these four files are included (BlazeDS does not have data management features), is as shown here:
<?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”UTF-8″?>
<services-config>
<services>
<service-include file-path=”remoting-config.xml” />
<service-include file-path=”proxy-config.xml” />
<service-include file-path=”messaging-config.xml” />
</services>
A few aspects like logging, security, and channel definitions are cross-cutting concerns and are used
across services, so these are defined in services-config.xml itself. All other service configurations
and definitions typically fall in one of the four files (or three if we are using BlazeDS) I spoke about.
In this chapter, there is no intent to cover every single aspect of configuration. Only a few important
ones are sampled and explained. For an exhaustive syntax-level account of each allowed configuration,
it’s advisable to refer to the LiveDocs. For BlazeDS, you could refer specifically to a LiveDocs section
titled “About service configuration files,” which can be found online at http://
livedocs.adobe.com/blazeds/1/blazeds_devguide/help.html?content=services_config_2.html.
Let’s survey a few configuration options to get a flavor of things.

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Exam A

QUESTION 1
Which of the following techniques can be usedto improve performance of PowerCubes in Cognos 8 BI?
A. Run the cube through the pcoptimizer utility that is shipped with Cognos 8 BI.
B. Enable the Allow dynamic usage of dimension information governor in Framework Manager.
C. Edit the EnablePCOptimizer entry in the Cognos.ini file so that its value=1, and then rebuild the cube.
D. Ensure that the Pass-through SQL setting is enabled onall regular dimensions in the Framework
Managermodel.
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which of the following utilities can be used to update PowerCubes withoutaffecting users?
A. pcaccel.exe
B. CubeSwap.bat
C. RSUpgrade.bat
D. BMTScriptPlayer.exe
Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What is true of a Framework Manager model of an operational database lacking a time dimension?
A. Virtual star schema models require a time dimension for multi-fact queries.
B. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries.
C. Time-based rollups for multi-fact queries may be difficult to handle.
D. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries unless using a union.
Answer: C
QUESTION 4
What technique can Framework Manager modelers use to implement a time dimension for models that lack
atime dimension?
A. Create relationships from date fields inone dimension to date fields in another dimension.
B. Use parameter maps to map date values in one query subject to date values in another query subject.
C. Use theTime Dimension wizard togenerate a time dimension and create the appropriate relationships.
D. Identify a time dimension table source, import into the model and create relationships to fact query
subjects.
Answer: D
QUESTION 5
In Framework Manager, when using star schema groupings inthe business view, conformed dimensions can
be identified bywhich one of the following?

A. Using a different query subject icon for display inthe studios.
B. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Report Studio.
C. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Framework Manager.
D. Using the same name for the dimension in each star schema grouping.
Answer: D
QUESTION 6
If authors want to perform OLAP-style queries directly against a relational database, which Framework
Manager modeling technique will a modeler use?
A. Create regular and measure dimensions and set scope.
B. Create shortcuts to regular dimensions and fact query subjects.
C. Create star schema groupings for dimension and fact query subjects.
D. Create relationships between regular dimensions andmeasure dimensions.
Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 8 securityenvironment?
A. Cognos 8 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time
B. Toperform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined
C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access toobjects for users, groups and
roles defined in theauthentication providers
D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access toobjects for groups and roles
(of which users are members), not individual users
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of
thefollowing Framework Manager objects?
A. Query items.
B. Data sources.
C. Relationships.
D. Parameter maps.
Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the implementation of object security in Framework
Manager?
A. Groups and roles can be createdin the Cognos namespace when specifying access to objects.
B. Even when object security is applied, if anonymous access is configured, every objectin a Framework
Manager project is visible toeveryone.
C. A user belongs to two groups. One of the groups isdenied access to an object. The other group is
grantedaccess to the object.The result is that user has access to the object.
D. Grantingaccess toan object for one user, group orrole(except theEveryone and All Authenticated Users
groups), implicitlydenies access to that object for all other users, groups or roles.
Answer: D
QUESTION 10
In Report Studio, whenwould an author use the Condition Explorer?
A. Toadd a page set to a report.
B. To set the number of rows on a page.
C. To create a report title that changes according to a locale.
D. Tonavigate between report pages and prompt pages.
Answer: C
QUESTION 11
In Report Studio, based on the above crosstab, which relationship is true?
A. Quantity and Revenue are peers.
B. Order method is a peer of Retailer type.
C. Sales territory is a peer of Order method.
D. Sales territory is a peer of Quantity and Revenue.
Answer: A
QUESTION 12
In Report Studio, a modeler wants tocreate a calculation using items that exist in the current report. On which
tab are these items available?
A. Source tab
B. Functions tab
C. Data Items tab
D. Parameters tab
Answer: C
QUESTION 13
In Report Studio, in which situation is it most appropriate to use a RepeaterTable?
A. Analyze financial data.
B. Create a mailing list report.
C. Compare values between and across items.
D. Clarify information not easily seen ina crosstabor list.
Answer: B

QUESTION 14
In Report Studio, which item could be found in a package containing either relationally modeled data
ordimensionally modeled relational data?
A. Level
B. Hierarchy
C. Dimension
D. Query item
Answer: D
QUESTION 15
In Report Studio, where does a modeler enable or disable drill behavior on multi-dimensional data?
A. On the Toolbar.
B. From the Data menu.
C. In the Properties pane.
D. In the Insertable Objects pane.
Answer: B

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1. During execution, a Verification Point or Reporting Point statement has the wrong result applied to it.

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A. click on the statement with the mouse

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C. press the Page-Up key until the statement is highlighted

D. repeatedly click the Go to Previous Step button until the statement is highlighted

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When setting up a VoIP call, what is the first thing a gateway router tries to match to a
dialed number?
A. session target
B. call leg
C. destination pattern
D. IP route
Answer: C

In North America, which E&M signaling type is used most often for geographically
separated equipment?
A. Type III
B. Type II
C. Type V
D. Type I
E. Type IV
Answer: B

When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from
media flow-around? (Choose two.)
A. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow
directly between endpoints.
B. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly
between endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media
flow-around supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP
streams.
E. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP
streams.
F. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow
directly between endpoints.
Answer: E,F

Which two are types of Call Admission Control? (Choose two.)
A. gateway zone bandwidth
B. topology-based
C. resource-based
D. gatekeeper-controlled RSVP
E. local
F. QoS-based
Answer: C,E

QUESTION 5
Site A uses three-digit internal numbers and remote Site B uses four-digit internal
numbers. All calls to the PSTN are routed through Site B. What dial plan below best
represents provision simplicity, assuming the NANP numbering plan?
A. Translate all called numbers within Site A to four digits.
B. Translate all called numbers within Site B to three digits.
C. Translate all called numbers at either site to ten digits.
D. Translate all called numbers leaving Site A to ten digits.
Answer: D

Which three are supervisory signals? (Choose three.)
A. call waiting
B. on hook
C. ring
D. busy
E. off hook
Answer: B,C,E

Which command parameter specifies that the router should not attempt to initiate a trunk
connection but should wait for an incoming call before establishing the trunk?
A. connection trunk answer-mode 408555
B. connection trunk 408555….
C. connection-trunk 404555…. answer-mode
D. ds0-group timeslots 1-23 type ext-sig
E. voice-port 1/0:1
Answer: C

What does a gatekeeper do when it matches a technology prefix?
A. strips off the zone prefix and forwards the technology prefix to the remote gatekeeper
B. strips off the technology prefix and sends the matching zone prefix to the remote
gatekeeper
C. sends both the technology prefix and zone prefix to the remote gatekeeper
D. strips off both the technology prefix and zone prefix and forwards the remaining
destination number
Answer: C

At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the
residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the
destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a
create-connection request to the source
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source
residential gateway to create a connection
C. does not release call path setup
D. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential
gateway
E. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and
has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination
can set up the call path
Answer: E

What is the best description of an MGCP endpoint?
A. the gatekeepers in a VoIP network
B. IP phones
C. any analog telephony device (PBX, switch, etc.)
D. the interconnection between packet and traditional telephone networks
Answer: D

Using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, what four steps are necessary to
implement COR? (Choose four.)
A. Define COR labels.
B. Configure COR lists on voice ports.
C. Configure dial peers and assign COR lists.
D. Assign COR list to ephone-DN.
E. Configure SRST.
F. Configure COR lists.
Answer: A,C,D,F

A telemarketing firm needs to use number translation for incoming and outgoing calls.
They have defined two translation profiles, one for incoming and one for outgoing calls.
What can be used to simplify this task?
A. dial peer
B. source IP group
C. trunk group
D. voice port
E. hunt group
Answer: C

The SJ local zone contains a gatekeeper that controls two gateways, SJ1 and SJ2. Both
gateways provide access to area code 408. Which two command strings should be
entered into the gatekeeper to give the SJ2 gateway priority over the SJ1 gateway?
(Choose two.)
A. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 0 SJ2, 10 SJ1
B. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ1
C. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1
D. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ2
E. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1, 10 SJ2
F. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ2
Answer: C,F

What is the most common E&M type used outside North America?
A. Type III
B. Type I
C. Type II
D. Type V
E. Type IV
Answer: D

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You have a Catalyst 6500 with a Supervisor IA with a MSFC. After a power outage, the MSFC
has lost its boot image and now will only boot into ROMMON mode. You want to load a new
image onto the Catalyst MSFC boot flash. What method can you use?
A. Console connection using Xmodem
B. FTP
C. TFTP
D. SNMP
E. SSH
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Catalyst 6000 Supervisor I and II modules have an onboard Flash file system that can handle
several image files. In addition to this Flash, they also have a PCMCIA Flash slot. These
Supervisors run their software from RAM and do not need their Flash system once correctly
booted up. If an image is then corrupted or deleted, the standard upgrade procedure is always
possible as long as the Supervisor is running a valid image. If the Supervisor is not booting up
because there is no valid image to boot from the ROMMON, you will have to use the recovery procedure.
Which of the following statements regarding the use of SPAN on a Catalyst 6500 are true?
A. With SPAN an entire VLAN can be configured to be the source.
B. If the source port is configured as a trunk port, the traffic on the destination port will also be
tagged, irrespective of the configuration on the destination port.
C. In any active SPAN session, the destination port will not participate in Spanning Tree.
D. It is possible to configure SPAN to have a Gigabit port as the destination port.
E. In one SPAN session it is possible to monitor multiple ports that do not belong to the same
VLAN.
Answer: A, C, D, E
Explanation:
A destination port (also called a monitor port) is a switch port where SPAN sends packets for
analysis. If the trunking mode of a SPAN destination port is “on” or “nonegotiate” during SPAN
session configuration, the SPAN packets forwarded by the destination port have the ncapsulation
as specified by the trunk type; however, the destination port stops trunking, and the show trunk
command reflects the trunking status for the port prior to SPAN session configuration.
For a detailed discussion on SPAN and RSPAN refer the link below.

A new TACACS+ server is configured to provide authentication to a NAS for remote access
users. A user tries to connect to the network and fails. The NAS reports a FAIL message. What
could be the problem? (Choose all that apply).
A. The TACACS+ service is not running on the server.
B. The password for this user is incorrect.
C. The username does not exist in the TACACS+ user database.
D. The NAS server lost its route to the TACACS+ server.
E. The TACACS+ server is down.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
A FAIL condition is a result of incorrect username/password information. It means that an
authentication request was successfully received, but that it had failed. A FAIL response is
significantly different from an ERROR. A FAIL means that the user has not met the criteria
contained in the applicable authentication database to be successfully authenticated.
Authentication ends with a FAIL response. An ERROR means that the security server has not
responded to an authentication query. Because of this, no authentication has been attempted.
Only when an ERROR is detected will AAA select the next authentication method defined in the
authentication method list.

You have forgotten the password to your Catalyst 5000 switch. Immediately after power cycling
the switch, you are faced with the password prompt. What default password should you type in?
A. cisco
B. abc123
C. sanfran
D. CTRL+ESC
E. No password, just hit the Enter key
Answer: E
Explanation:
Password recovery in Cat 5000 switch is performed in the following way. Power cycle the switch.
Hit the Enter key during the first 30 sec. The switch will allow you to get into the enable mode.
You will have 60 seconds to change the password and save the configuration change made
during this period.

While setting up remote access for your network, you type in the “aaa new-model” configuration
line in your Cisco router. Which authentication methods have you disabled as a result of this
change? (Choose all that apply.)
A. RADIUS
B. RADIUS+
C. Extended TACACS (XTACACS)
D. TACACS
E. TACACS+
F. Kerberos
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
When you enable AAA, you can no longer access the commands to configure the older
deprecated protocols, TACACS or Extended TACACS. If you decided to use TACACS or
Extended TACACS in your security solution, do not enable AAA.

Which of the following statement is true regarding clocking for a Cisco T1 interface?
A. The clock source command selects a source for the interface to clock received data.
By default, it is clock source loop-timed (specifies that the T1/E1 interface takes the clock from
the Tx (line) and uses it for Rx).
B. Routers are DTEs and NEVER supply clocking to T1/E1 line.
C. The clock source command specifies the location of the NTP server for timing.
D. The clock source selects a source for the interface to clock outgoing data.
The default is clock source line –Specifies that the T1/E1 link uses the recovered clock from
the line.
E. The clock source identifies the stratum level associated with the router T1/E1.
The default is Stratum 1.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clocking can either be internal, looped, or line. The default is line, meaning that the router is
receiving clocking from the carrier network line.
Incorrect Answers:
C, E. These answers relate to NTP services, which are used for providing time stamping
information to the router and does not relate to clocking. Stratum levels provide a hierarchy to the
NTP source, with the highest level as 1.

Network management tools use Management Information Base (MIB) information to monitor and
manage networks. Which of the following is NOT part of the MIB-2 specification, as defined in
RFC 1213? (Choose all that apply)
A. The System Group
B. The TCP Group
C. The Transmission Group
D. The Enterprises Group
E. The RMON Group
F. The ICMP Group
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
RFC 1213 defines the “Management Information Base for Network Management of TCP/IP-based
internets: MIB-II” specification. It defines all of the following groups:
System, Interfaces, Address Translation, IP, ICMP, TCP, UDP, EGP, Transmission, and SNMP.
The RMON group is not part of RFC 1213, nor is the Enterprises Group

Which types of SNMPv1 messages are sent from the NMS (Network Management Station) using
SNMP version 1 to the Agent?
A. Trap, Get and Set
B. Get, Set and Getnext
C. Get, Set, Getnext and GetBulk
D. Get, Set and GetBulk
E. Trap only
Answer: B
Explanation:
SNMP itself is a simple request/response protocol, and the SNMPv1 operations used bythe NMS
are defined as below.
Get: Allows the NMS to retrieve an object variable from the agent. GetNext: Allows the NMS to
retrieve the next object variable from a table or list within an agent. In SNMPv1, when a NMS
wants to retrieve all elements of a table from an agent, it initiates a Get operation, followed by a
series of GetNext operations.
Set: Allows the NMS to set values for object variables within an agent.
Incorrect Answers:
A, E. SNMP traps are used by the agent to inform the NMS of some events.
C, D. GetBulk is used in SNMPv2, not version 1. SNMPv2 defines two new operations: GetBulk
and Inform. The GetBulk operation is used to efficiently retrieve large blocks of data. The Inform
operation allows one NMS to send trap information to another NMS and to then receive a
response. In SNMPv2, if the agent responding to GetBulk operations cannot provide values for all
the variables in a list, it provides partial results.